Why in Spanish language the two signs i,e ' ! , ? ' are inserted vertically reverse at initial & finale of framing a wide phrase?

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French And Spanish Trainer

Yes, 1st one is inverted. We have to use inverted one in starting if we are using the real one in end. True for "?" too.
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This helps to recognize questions and exclamations in long sentences.
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Spanish Language Expert

There is no grammatical reason for the insertion of these symbols in a certain way.These are recommendations made within the particular language system.The inverted question mark (¿) is a punctuation mark written before the first letter of an interrogative sentence or clause to indicate that a question...
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There is no grammatical reason for the insertion of these symbols in a certain way.These are recommendations made within the particular language system.The inverted question mark (¿) is a punctuation mark written before the first letter of an interrogative sentence or clause to indicate that a question follows. It is an inverted form of the standard symbol "?" recognized by speakers of languages written with the Latin alphabet. In most languages, a single question mark is used, and only at the end of an interrogative sentence.This was once true of the Spanish language.The same goes for inverted-symbol system for statements of exclamation, using the symbols "¡" and "!". read less
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